[thetruth]

Who will be saved? I have heard many different arguments on this so let's look at a couple of verses


2Pe 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
I think this verse is pretty clear

Next verse
Jhn 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.

This verse seems to indicate that only certain peple will be saved but this view contradicts scripture remember know prophecy is of any private interpretation

1Ti 2:3 For this [is] good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; 
1Ti 2:4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. 

Now these verse say that God wants all men to be saved. So which is it. Does he want everyone or only the "elect" Let's look at one more verse

Jhn 12:32 And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all [men] unto me. 

Yes it is true that no man cometh to Jesus except the Father draw him but God did that drawing when Christ died on the cross

I think the scripture is clear. God bless.

[standingontruth]

This passage pretty well sums it up...

Quote:14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: 15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life. 16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. 17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. 18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. John 3:14-18 KJV

If God had sent his Son into the world so that only certain "elect" people could be saved, then this passage would not be true because Jesus would have been sent to condemn the whole world except the "elect." This passage tells us otherwise. 

[proderick]

You state that 2 Peter 1:20 tells that no prophecy of scripture is of our own interpretation ( or origin). Is this not what you just did?

Peter was telling us that what he was preaching and had taught was not of himself, but what he had witnessed, the fulfilling of prophecy of the messiah.
And that no prophecy has ever came from man but from God.

You quote John 6:44 and then say, "This verse seems to indicate that only certain peple will be saved but this view contradicts scripture remember know prophecy is of any private interpretation." What, this view? You are quoting scripture. So are you saying that this verse contradicts scripture?

But you should read the next verse.


I Timothy 2:3 what is good and acceptable is that we may lead a quiet and peaceful life in all Godliness and reverence. and yes God does what all men to be saved, (all is in all kinds,from all nations, not just for the Jews). Salvation was for the Jews first. They rejected Him. (1Peter 1:9-10 for starters).

2 Peter 3:9... Who was Peter writing to? What promise was he speaking of? What is this day of the Lord he speaks of? answer these things first before you try and cut and paste scripture to your own interpretation.(remember the verse you quoted earlier).

John 12:32 yes He has drawn all men unto Himself, salvation is no longer just for the Jews, but all men.


Scripture always interprets scripture. It is not what we believe, but what scripture teaches as a whole. Anyone can pluck out verses, people do it all the time. The questions is are you as with myself, are we going to allow scripture to dictate what we believe or are we going to dictate what scripture teaches. if it is there, will be believe it, even if it contradicts our own interpretation?